Hi,
I thought I understood this concept as it has - admittingly - been explained to me many times before. I've always thought an amplifier putting out 100wpc > 8 ohm would theoretically put out 200wpc > 4 ohm assuming it could delivery the current. In other words, I thought it would deliver more watts at lower ohmage.
My amplifier specs say ... (assume 8 ohm)
Power Output 7 x 90 Watt
T.H.D. 0.08%
My speaker specs say ...
Recom. Amplifier Power
at Nominal Impedance 30-300 W / channel
Crossover Frequencies 2,500 / 2,700 Hz
Sensitivity 90 dB / 2.83 V / 1 m
Nominal Impedance
suitable for amplifiers (from ... to) 4 Ohm
4 ... 8 Ohm
Minimum Impedance 3.5 Ohm at 190 Hz
Frequency Range 32 ??? 35,000 Hz
Nominal / Peak Power Handling 160 / 200 W
I always assumed that since my amplifer was delivering 90wpc > 8 ohm, that I'd be delivery about 130wpc into my 4 ohm speakers. But then I read this on a review of another amplifier :
As a matter of comparison, my Aragon 8008BB can put out 20 amps into each channel, two channels at a time, if the AC line voltage will permit. At 8 ohms, figuring ohms x (amps)2, we're looking at a maximum continuous output at all seven channels of roughly 130 watts each. So, it is believable that this receiver could meet 130 watts/channel all channels driven, but just barely, and since below 8 ohms, the current is the limiting factor at 8 ohms, not voltage, in an all channels driven situation, full power output will decrease as impedance drops. Under the unlikely situation that all channels are going full tilt, the receiver isn't likely to put out more than 65 watts per channel into 4 ohm loads under such circumstances.
I notice that particular amp is delivery less watts at less ohmage.
How does it work?
I thought I understood this concept as it has - admittingly - been explained to me many times before. I've always thought an amplifier putting out 100wpc > 8 ohm would theoretically put out 200wpc > 4 ohm assuming it could delivery the current. In other words, I thought it would deliver more watts at lower ohmage.
My amplifier specs say ... (assume 8 ohm)
Power Output 7 x 90 Watt
T.H.D. 0.08%
My speaker specs say ...
Recom. Amplifier Power
at Nominal Impedance 30-300 W / channel
Crossover Frequencies 2,500 / 2,700 Hz
Sensitivity 90 dB / 2.83 V / 1 m
Nominal Impedance
suitable for amplifiers (from ... to) 4 Ohm
4 ... 8 Ohm
Minimum Impedance 3.5 Ohm at 190 Hz
Frequency Range 32 ??? 35,000 Hz
Nominal / Peak Power Handling 160 / 200 W
I always assumed that since my amplifer was delivering 90wpc > 8 ohm, that I'd be delivery about 130wpc into my 4 ohm speakers. But then I read this on a review of another amplifier :
As a matter of comparison, my Aragon 8008BB can put out 20 amps into each channel, two channels at a time, if the AC line voltage will permit. At 8 ohms, figuring ohms x (amps)2, we're looking at a maximum continuous output at all seven channels of roughly 130 watts each. So, it is believable that this receiver could meet 130 watts/channel all channels driven, but just barely, and since below 8 ohms, the current is the limiting factor at 8 ohms, not voltage, in an all channels driven situation, full power output will decrease as impedance drops. Under the unlikely situation that all channels are going full tilt, the receiver isn't likely to put out more than 65 watts per channel into 4 ohm loads under such circumstances.
I notice that particular amp is delivery less watts at less ohmage.
How does it work?
